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This is a level 1 question.
How do I compute the time value of LEAPS. I understand that the current risk-free interest rates have some bearing. Please explain. Formulas would be helpful.
Time value is very simple to calculate. For an in-the-money option, you can derive an option's time value by subtracting its intrinsic value from the current premium. The intrinsic value is the amount that the option is in the money. Since you're interested in LEAPS, let's use one as an example. Suppose that:
- a stock is trading at 58.50
- a LEAP on the stock, a call with a strike price of 50, is asked at 17.25
The LEAP has an intrinsic value of 8.50 (58.50 minus 50), and its time value is 8.75 (17.25 minus 8.50). Note that since this option has a long life, more than half of its price is attributable to time value.
Out-of-the-money options don't have intrinsic value. Therefore, their premium is made up entirely of time value. For example, if a call on the same equity has a strike price of 70 and is currently asked at 8, all of that is time value.
If you would like to predict how time decay will affect the price of an option, you can use the option's theta. Theta defines the loss in value an option will experience as time passes and is usually expressed on a per day basis. It's important to realize that theta is non-linear such that it accelerates as the option nears expiration. You can obtain an option's theta at www.phlx.com.
The October 60 call on AXP has a theta of –0.04. In other words, the option will lose about four cents per day in time value, assuming that the stock price and the volatility remain constant.
The current risk-free rate is a variable in calculating the theoretical price of an option, but it has nothing to do with time value.
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